If, as you say, "the people" give "legitimacy" to the "government", and (I'm presuming here, please correct me if I'm wrong in this presumption) that you mean, that "the people" consent or give legitimacy to the "Constitution", and the "Constitution" provides for "representatives" and, for the moment, I'll assume by "lawmakers" you mean "representatives" for if "the people" give "legitimacy" to the "government" then it would seem that "the people" are the "lawmakers", then if those "representatives" have passed "unConstitutional" laws, then are not either-way therefore "the people" giving legitimacy to those "unConstitutional" laws?
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